A long long time ago .....

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Pat-inCO

Hawkeye
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A long long time ago, well probably only ten or twelve years, I got the Ruger carbine in a 40S&W. NICE little rifle. Uses the magazine from the full size pistol, so they are easy to find.

How, in Heaven's name, do we get Ruger to build one like that in a .45ACP?!

That would be a "GOTTA HAVE" at least two. :lol:
 

mohavesam

Hawkeye
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Jan 4, 2004
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Rugerville, AZ
or 10mm.

or even 357 Mag.


The 40S&W is a fine pistol round. Some loads should equal 45ACP pistol ballistics when fired from a carbine-length barrel.

But ONLY the chrono will tell the truth! Some factory pistol loadings actually prove lower (or no gain) velocities when fired in a carbine-length barrel. Test your favorite load to be sure.

Shoot more calibers! Shoot more for fun!

:wink:
 

Spike

Single-Sixer
Joined
Nov 8, 2003
Messages
105
Location
WA
How about 357SIG!
Could a 9mm barrel simply be rechambered?
It could even still use the 40S&W mags...
-S
 

Jimbo357mag

Hawkeye
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Feb 22, 2007
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10,350
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So. Florida
Pat-inCO":2iiox7mz said:
A long long time ago, well probably only ten or twelve years, I got the Ruger carbine in a 40S&W. NICE little rifle. Uses the magazine from the full size pistol, so they are easy to find.

How, in Heaven's name, do we get Ruger to build one like that in a .45ACP?!

That would be a "GOTTA HAVE" at least two. :lol:

You get H&K or Kahr or MasterPiece Arms to build one. :D

https://www.galleryofguns.com/genie/def ... ue&sit=All

...Jimbo
 

Spike

Single-Sixer
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Messages
105
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WA
Otony":20ixzpig said:
Spike":20ixzpig said:
How about 357SIG!
Could a 9mm barrel simply be rechambered?
It could even still use the 40S&W mags...
-S

I think about this conversion...frequently!
Well, think of the possibilities.

It has always amazed me that while you see PC carbines in 9mm, 40SW and on occasion 45ACP, you never see them in 357SIG!

And why is that? And why not as often 10mm, for that matter? (But I won't get into that now.)

I mean 357SIG seems such a natural inclusion in the offerings. Simply retool a few 9mm tubes and, viola'!, 357SIG. Even milder machining on some of the 40's and, poof!, 100mm!

I mean, tollerances and specs would have to be satisfied, all the i's crossed and t's dotted, naturally it would all be very professional, blah, blah, blah...

But the ballistics would be stunning.

sigh...


-S
 

Otony

Blackhawk
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Aug 4, 2000
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560
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Pacific Northwest, on the "Dry Side"
Spike,

The .357 SIG conversion is a natural, just load .40 mags up and use them in your rechambered 9mm PC.

However, the 10mm conversion is a no-go. The .40 magazines are not deep enough front to rear to accomodate the 10mm cartridge.

I recall a fellow on here years back who claimed he had either reworked his PC9 to take SIG P226/228 magazines, or had it done for him by a gunsmith. Maybe he posted that he had heard or seen of such a beast. anyway it was, I sort of went wild trying to bird dog down more info, as I was shooting a P228 at the time quite a bit, but no joy. It does make me wonder if the PC40 could be rechambered to 10mm and use another magazine altogether, one long enough for the cartridge.
 

Spike

Single-Sixer
Joined
Nov 8, 2003
Messages
105
Location
WA
I can see where 10mm would be a little more problematic. And you might have mag well issues... It would be a project.

What suprises me is that with the many 40SW handguns around, quite a few seem to offer 357SIG conversions (barrel swap). If not, there are some aftermarket barell manufacturers offering the conversion. I just don't see it with the PCC's I've window shopped.

I know a couple good gunsmith's who would probably be willing to do the job. I assume they have ways of measuring chamber walls and calculating pressures for a safe and professional rechambering. Shouldn't be to enormously expensive. If I ever pick up a PCC I may look into it.

-S
 

tomiswho

Single-Sixer
Joined
Feb 2, 2008
Messages
323
Location
Georgia
Bear, you have some good points and the argument will go on for as long as we can publicly talk about guns, but I think Dr. Einstein would have a bit of trouble with "Velocity created energy is not the same as mass created energy." Effective energy transferal may be different, but actual "energy" has quite a concrete definition in the laws of physics.

From Wikipedia:
"The kinetic energy of an object is the extra energy which it possesses due to its motion. It is defined as the work needed to accelerate a body of a given mass from rest to its current velocity. Having gained this energy during its acceleration, the body maintains this kinetic energy unless its speed changes. Negative work of the same magnitude would be required to return the body to a state of rest from that velocity."
 
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